I am confused by a patient I saw today who complains of sharp, I/T (L) heel pain ( posterior-medial on palpation)when sit for >½ hour, it eases immediately when she stands up and walks or if she stretches her calf muscles. She has had this pain the last 2 weeks, after being treated for left knee pain (bad OA and patella femoral pain, worsened after fall 2/12 ago) and LBP (LBP started 1 month ago, but has longstanding back pain and stress #'s (not seen xray yet and patient didn't know where) and reports having Osteoporosis. She states that when heel pain gets bad, her LBP starts.
I initially thought lumbar referred pain due to aggravating behavior, but when tested Lx AM's I only reproduced LBP. (Could not do OP's due to fear of stressing spine too much)
When i did SLR LBP was reproduced very early in range ( 15 deg) bilaterally and DECREASED with passive dorsiflexion (???)
No heel pain was reproduced.
I found stiffness in her subtalar joint, and when i distracted her Calcaneous on Talus her pain was abolished (from 5/10).
I am confused about her neural tension result, and why dorsiflexion also reduces her heel pain.
I would like to perform a neuro examination on her next visit and also do a gentle PAIVM examination of her lx spine to just clear any chance of referred pain.
What's her diagnosis?
I am currently thinking that her stiff subtalar joint is causing the plantar fascia pain, and by mobilising the joint we can reduce the compression from tight gastrocks/soleus and plantar fascia- but shouldn't the pain increase when she does active dorsiflexion?
Any comments to this??
Regards
confused PT
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