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    inhibition

    I am wondering if it isn't true that a full inhibition as least in a healthy person will only occur in the antagonist if a force of less than 3 is used (on the scale of 5)? because otherwise to control a movement antagonists and antagonists are working together to get a fluent movement.


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    Question

    Quote Originally Posted by neurospast View Post
    I am wondering if it isn't true that a full inhibition as least in a healthy person will only occur in the antagonist if a force of less than 3 is used (on the scale of 5)? because otherwise to control a movement antagonists and antagonists are working together to get a fluent movement.

    Arr. Yes the concepts of PNF and Muscle Energy. Different mechanisms are at play also depending on whether you are resisting a force or pressing again a force. So this also has an effect. I would have thought a grade 4- would be more appropriate to use this as a technique rather than a grade 3, which is afterall on muscle testing a strength that permits joint movement but not against gravity. Or are you discussing a different muscle grading for force rather than strength?



 
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