"It is rare to find a peripheral joint pain problem not caused by direct trauma , that does not have a significant component of cause , by neuralgic means".....


So how do you explain OA of the hip or knee (not due to trauma) where symtoms are relieved dramatically with arthroplasties?? You also, mention that your thoughts are based a lot on your clinical experience, which is important. Do you have any recent research that would support your above statement relating to peripheral pathology being so rare??